Radio Navigation Level 4 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The ADF bearing reading for an NDB on the airway centreline ahead is 015° Relative. Which of the following statements is true?
• Which navigation system relies on satellites and measures the time of flight of signals to determine position?
• Using a hyperbolic navigation system a position is plotted that is 20 nm further from X than Y. X and Y are 100 nm apart. The hyperbola crosses the baseline:
• Why can't an aircraft DME receiver lock onto signals reflected from the ground?
• An ADF system uses sense aerial and loop aerial. Which option correctly describes their configuration?
• If a DME has difficulty obtaining a lock-on, what happens?
• Which trio of primary navigation inputs is used by RNAV systems?
• The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210 nm. The reason for this is
• In weather radar mode, the strongest returns on the display indicate:
• Aircraft heading 225(M), ADF RMI reading 090 the quadrantal error of this bearing
• The Outer Marker of an ILS transmits on which frequency and is modulated by Morse at what rate?
• Ground direction finding at civil aerodromes uses which frequency band?
• The navigation database in the FMC:
• Which frequency is used for SSR ground transmissions?
• What most affects the range available from a secondary radar?
• At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots low on a 3-degree glidepath. Using 0.15° per dot and the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown.
• The OFF flag on DME mileage displays may indicate:
• An aircraft will not accept replies from its own transmissions that are reflected from the ground because the:
• What color is the JAR25 ILS deviation pointer?
• What is the accuracy requirement for a precision area navigation system?
• In the NDB intercept scenario, what is the outbound course angle being intercepted?
• Which statement best describes the effect of increasing frequency on ionospheric refraction and atmospheric attenuation?
• Marker beacons: do all four types transmit on the same carrier frequency?
• Ground direction finding at military aerodromes uses which frequency band?
• The ISO-ECHO facility is designed to detect turbulence in which meteorological feature?
• Ground direction finding at civil aerodromes uses which frequency band, and at military aerodromes uses which?
• For NAVSTAR GPS, receiver clock error correction requires at least how many satellites?
• Which mode allows identification of areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud?
• Bearings taken by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
• A pilot wishes to obtain the magnetic bearing of his aircraft from a VDF station. Which term would he use?
• What is the range of long-range ground radar?
• An aircraft is on a bearing of 263° (M) from a VOR, the OBI is set to 091°, the deviation indicator will show?
• What is the maximum theoretical range, in nautical miles, of a radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 750 pps?
• Which distance range was specified for ground mapping in front of the aircraft?
• The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:
• While correctly tuned to an NDB transmitting a N0N A1A signal the BFO is switched on. What would you hear
• What does the TO indication on the VOR indicator signify?
• An airway 10 NM wide is defined by two VORs each having bearing accuracy ±5.5°. To ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits, what is the approximate maximum distance apart for the transmitters?
• According to the material, what is the stated RNAV accuracy?
• What is the range of long-range ground radar?
• The JAR25 colour code for the active route is:
• How many satellites are required to give a three-dimensional fix without RAIM?
• In mapping mode, the airborne weather radar uses which beam type and maximum range?
• An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary receiver. If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at the same height the received frequency will be:
• An aircraft on a heading of 270°, OBS 093, TO indicated on the VOR L/R deviation indicator. The needle shows two dots fly left. The aircraft is on which radial?
• What is the effect of shorter radar wavelengths on the detectability of small targets such as fog?
• Referring to DME during the initial stage of the search pattern before lock-on
• The base-line between the LORAN C master and slave station is typically:
• In hyperbolic navigation, the locus of points producing a given difference in distance to two landmarks is called a:
• In an amplitude modulated signal, the carrier amplitude will:
• To obtain an ADF bearing, the signal must be received by which aerials?
• Which statement about weather radar mapping mode is true?
• What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV systems?
• ILS glidepath coverage extends to what range and how far from the centreline?
• The visibility of GPS satellites is
• A Loran C chain designation is based on which parameter?
• Using a 5-dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?
• What are RNAV systems?
• On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
• What is Back Up FMS navigation mode?
• The sky search carried out by a GNSS receiver is performed when the receiver position is:
• In the inbound track notation, (T) indicates the track is referenced to which datum?
• In a primary radar using a pulse technique, which parameter determines the maximum theoretical range?
• The distance displayed by the DME indicator is:
• DME primarily provides pilots with:
• Which errors are listed as affecting GPS in the source material?
• For an NDB with 200 W transmitter power, the nominal maximum range is typically between which values?
• Loran C is a navigation system which uses
• What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
• To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings, the correct positions to read magnetic variation are:
• The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30,000 ft will be when the aircraft is:
• Which statement is true about the 3° ILS glidepath coverage?
• The colours used on a conventional AWR to indicate increasing intensity of returns are
• What are the first three screens on an FMS that require data input?
• In a standard VOR, the bearing is produced by the phase difference between which signals?
• In a hybrid navigation system, how is data from multiple sources used?
• DME system saturation may occur when more than how many aircraft are demanding replies from a single ground station?
• What is the operating principle of MLS?
• Using a DVOR, the reference and variable signals are reversed. This action
• In an ILS, the false glidepath is located relative to the true glidepath as:
• In which frequency band does the Decca navigation system operate?
• Which statement is true about the SRA approach using QFE?
• Which item is not included in the GPS navigation message on C/A and P codes?
• To double the effective range of a primary radar, the power output must be increased by which factor?
• What does magnetic variation refer to in navigation?
• Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
• The beam width from a parabolic reflector aerial is dependent on which factor?
• DECCA operates at which frequency range?
• Assuming sufficient transmission power, what is the maximum unambiguous range of a ground radar operating with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second (speed of light 300,000 km/s)?
• The range to a required RNAV waypoint is presented as which type of range?
• The LORAN-C baseline between master and slave stations is typically within which range?
• If a DME in tracking mode experiences a reduction in signal strength, the first mode it switches to is:
• For a given HF frequency, skip distance will normally:
• Which statement is true about the frequency of 295 kHz?
• Data transmission and exchange is conducted in which mode?
• Which statement is true about the ADF?
• The sequence of MCDU pages accessed on initialisation of the FMS is:
• In ADF operation using a sense aerial and a loop aerial, rotating the loop to a sharp null indicates the loop is oriented:
• A ground-based radar with a scanner rotation of 60 rpm, a beam width of 0.5°, and a PRF of 10,000 pps would be best described as which indicator?
• Loran is available for use in which areas?
• True or False: The Morse code identifiers for VOR ground installations and DME/TACAN ground installations are the same.
• How many satellites are required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS?
• When mapping the ground between 50 nm and 70 nm in front of the aircraft, which beam and scale is correct?
• Which option correctly lists the frequency range used by DME?
• A false indication of water on the AWR display may occur when:
• In order to have good sensitivity to water droplets in cumuli type clouds, the wavelength of an AWR should be approximately:
• Why can't the aircraft DME receiver lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground?
• What is the minimum number of satellites required for GNSS to carry out independent three-dimensional operation and RAIM?
• Which material is the nominal glide slope used for instrument approaches?
• In the example scenario with 5.25 NM from threshold, 4 dots low, and 0.15° per dot, what is the height above touchdown?
• Which statement about GNSS C/A code is true?
• For a 3° ILS glidepath the approximate angles of lower and upper vertical coverage are:
• The 3° glideslope provides horizontal coverage to how many degrees on each side of the localiser?
• In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
• The glide path transmitter operates within which frequency range?
• Diffraction of a radio frequency signal occurs due to obstacles with dimensions close to which size?
• Which statement correctly describes true heading?
• The Doppler effect in this scenario causes the received frequency to:
• In a DME in search mode, what action occurs after 15000 pulse pairs are transmitted?
• In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern?
• Which statement correctly assigns the roles of 1030 MHz and 1090 MHz in ground SSR?
• Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
• In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to automatic flight is provided by:
• The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 mm is:
• Which SSR code is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
• In pulsed radar, which parameter primarily determines the theoretical maximum range?
• Doppler navigation systems: after a long period in memory, what is required?
• In navigation symbols, what does the letters QTX and an adjacent symbol indicate?
• Regarding NDB locators, which statement is correct?
• A signal with a wavelength of 7360 m lies in which band?
• What is the prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar?
• Pulse width is typically measured in what unit?
• A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
• The orbital inclination of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites relative to the equator is
• An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will do what to speed and bending relative to the normal?
• DECCA is:
• An aircraft over the sea receives NDB signals from beacons at 50 nm and 20 nm from the coast. Which beacon provides more correct bearing information?
• RNAV equipment will provide which of the following capabilities?
• The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power of 200 watts is:
• Which statement is true about the AWR wavelength for cumulus droplets?
• What was the groundspeed used in the rate of descent example?
• The DME identifier ends with which letter?
• In the interception scenario described, what is the relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception?
• Why does a DME transponder not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME?
• ETO in RNAV terms stands for which phrase?
• Given required track 070° True, variation 30° West, deviation +1°, drift 10° South, what is the required compass heading?
• Which term describes the distance readout provided by DME?
• Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM from touchdown?
• In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
• The Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) receives heading data from which onboard system via the symbol generator?
• Using the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3 degree glidepath at a groundspeed of 115 kts.
• The PRF of a primary radar is 500 Hz. Its maximum range is which value?
• In LORAN-C, the secondary stations around the master are designated by which letters?
• Which data element is included among NAVSTAR/GPS satellite transmissions?
• Locators have a certain power and range and are NON A2A. Which of the following is true about LOCATOR transmitters?
• During IFR flight with NAVSTAR/GPS, if the satellites required for RAIM are not available, what should be done?
• Maximum unambiguous range of a pulsed radar is primarily governed by which parameter?
• A VDF bearing category B should be accurate to within:
• If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 KW has a range of 50 nm, increasing the power to 100 KW yields approximately which range?
• The basic information given by the ADF is:
• On a 5-dot CDI, a readout of 1.5 dots indicates the bearing is roughly what relative to the desired course?
• The orbital planes of NAVSTAR/GPS are inclined to the equatorial plane by how many degrees?
• To convert RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings, you must read magnetic variation from which locations?
• Of the types of GPS receivers available for civil aviation, which is the most advanced type?
• Loran C operates at a frequency of:
• A frequency of 295 KHz would be described as:
• In a primary radar, which condition defines the maximum range?
• What term describes the wobble of the ILS guidance beam relative to the intended approach path?
• Which statement accurately describes the bearing information provided by ADF?
• The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
• What is the beam width of the radar described in the scenario?
• The modulation technique used in ILS is A8W, and a typical localiser frequency is?
• A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by which aerial orientation?
• The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for the active route is:
• In relation to VDF, the true bearing of an aircraft from a ground station is which Q-code?
• An aircraft heading 137(M) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 30 left azimuth line. Local variation is 12° W. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot which range and QTE from the centre of the island?
• If the Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF) of a transmitter is 500 Hz, what is the corresponding Pulse Repetition Interval (PRI)?
• Which factor can degrade VOR signal quality?
• Night effect for ADF transmissions is most pronounced at which time?
• Which statement about DME interrogation times is accurate?
• What is QTE?
• In a 2D area navigation system, why is a waypoint referred to as a phantom station?
• An ADF uses a sense aerial to:
• An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8° right drift and is 5 NM left of the airway centreline. The ADF reading of a NDB on the airway centreline 42 NM ahead is:
• Which of the following is NOT typically used to provide EFIS data for automatic flight?
• Which statement is true about the RF energy in a primary radar system?
• In a primary radar system, where is the RF energy produced?
• What is the ICAO designation for VOR?
• RAIM provides the capability to do what with a faulty satellite?
• Which statement is true about the reception of a VOR within the published airspace?
• In GPS context, FOC stands for which of the following?
• The principal advantage of Doppler VOR is that:
• A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
• A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
• What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier?
• When data are published for a hyperbolic navigation system, they are valid:
• If heading toward an NDB with a 000 relative bearing in the presence of a crosswind, which statement about the track is correct?
• With a PRF of 1500 Hz, what is the Pulse Repetition Interval (PRI) in microseconds?
• During maintenance or testing, the identification signal of a VOR transmitter is:
• Which statement best describes the operation of VOR?
• Which of the following represents a 3-D independent position fix in NAVSTAR/GPS?
• Loran is available for use
• The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment uses which transmitter and receiver frequencies?
• What is the modulation rate for the ILS outer marker tone?
• A radio aid has a wavelength of 2.4 m. The frequency is
• Which statement is true about ADF night effect?
• You want to use your airborne weather radar to detect areas with turbulence. If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft may difficult because of ground returns.
• What causes precipitation static to degrade ADF bearings?
• What is the lower endpoint of the glide path frequency range?
• What is the accuracy requirement for a basic RNAV system?
• Which statement explains why attenuation is greater over land than over sea?
• Why is a phantom station used to describe a waypoint in a 2D area navigation system?
• In the airway design example, what is the bearing accuracy value used for the two VORs?
• Which external reference is used by the B737-400 Flight Management Computer (FMC)?
• What is the required rate of descent for an aircraft on a 2.5-degree glideslope with a groundspeed of 142 knots at 4 NM from the threshold?
• Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no code has been allocated?
• In the context of weather radar mapping, what kind of beam characterizes the radar?
• An aircraft passes over position A through true north of a VOR station sited at position B. Variation is 18° W at A and 10° W at B. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
• What is an example of a self-contained RNAV system?
• During the DME search pattern before lock-on, the airborne transmitter transmits at what pulse-pair rate?
• When using airborne weather radar to detect turbulence, why might turbulence below the aircraft be harder to detect at low altitude?
• When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to as
• The approximate vertical coverage of a 3° glideslope from the horizontal is within which range?
• In radio terms, frequency means?
• What is the maximum off-track error permitted on P-RNAV systems?
• Scalloping of an ILS beam means:
• What does code 7700 indicate on an aircraft SSR transponder?
• What are the two components of the ICAO DME range error specification?
• What is the maximum theoretical range for a primary radar with a PRF of 324 pps?
• During a 3° glidepath ILS approach, the groundspeed decreases from 150 kt to 120 kt. The effect on the rate of descent will be approximately:
• The azimuth target discrimination angle for a radar with a frequency of 10.000 MHz radiated from a 15 cm diameter parabolic dish is?
• In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by which method?
• All modern LORAN C receivers intended for use in aircraft have which feature?
• An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a height of:
• Assuming a five dot display, what does each dot on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent?
• In the island azimuth example, the island is located on which azimuth line relative to the aircraft?
• A DME typically operates at which frequency?
• ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
• The rate of attenuation of a radio wave traveling near the Earth's surface varies with frequency and surface type. Which statement is correct?
• In a DVOR system, reversing the reference and variable signals affects which aspect of performance?
• Which GPS receiver type is described as the most advanced for civil aviation in this context?
• You are maintaining a track of 315° M on a heading of 299° M. The variation at the aircraft is 12° E. The true heading is ..., the true track is ... and the drift is ...
• What is the maximum theoretical range to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield’s VOR?
• The ILS localiser employs two overlapping lobes to provide lateral guidance by comparing signals from two channels. Which statement best describes this arrangement?
• Pulse width can be defined as:
• In LORAN-C navigation, the arrangement consisting of a master station with surrounding secondary stations is commonly referred to as what?
• The period of validity of the navigational database is?
• A VHF signal is transmitted from an aircraft at FL 230 and received by an aircraft at FL 50. Approximately how many nautical miles apart are the aircraft when reception occurs?
• An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which setting should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
• The heading inputs to the EHSI are provided by which system via the symbol generator?
• The ILS Glide Path provides azimuth coverage on each side of the localiser centre-line to what angular extent?
• What are the visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker?
• AWR in the contour mode is used for
• The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
• Which statement is true regarding VOR and DME identifiers?
• DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately
• Immediately after IDENT, which MCDU page is accessed next during initialisation?
• LORAN-C is a navigation system that uses which principle?
• What is the approximate theoretical range of the described Airfield Surface Movement Indicator?
• In a standard VOR, the phase difference used to determine bearing exists between which signals, respectively?
• How many operational GPS satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)?
• The database of an FMS is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
• Which factor primarily determines the rate of attenuation of a radio wave travelling close to the Earth's surface?
• On a VOR approach, what does the indicator 'TO' signify in relation to the VOR?
• Which statement about FMC operation is true?
• Which method will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
• In the cloud height calculation scenario, what was the cloud range used?
• What is the typical range for LOCATOR transmitters?
• Regarding GPS navigation messages on C/A and P codes, which statement is correct?
• How many types of marker beacons exist, and what are they?
• In LORAN-C, the station designated as the master has what relative designation for the other stations?
• Category I ILS minimum height is certificated down to:
• What is the typical localiser frequency used in ILS?
• Category I aircraft ILS equipment is certificated to what barometric height?
• The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a DME to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 microseconds. The slant range from the ground transponder was approximately:
• What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at FL080?
• Which heading does the RMI indicate?
• If a VOR and its DME share the same first two letters of their identifiers and the DME ends with Z, what does this imply about their locations?
• If the reference phase differs by 30° from the variable phase, what is the VOR radial?
• Cat III ILS glidepath provides reliable guidance down to:
• ICAO specifications for DME range errors should not exceed which expression?
• For a B737-400 FMC, what is the maximum range at which VOR bearing information will be used for fixing?
• In the island fix example, which Range and QTE are used?
• The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to
• In a primary radar using a pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is primarily a function of which parameter?
• Which statement describes the advantage of MLS over ILS?
• Using an NDB, which of the following are potential errors or limitations?
• The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
• Which navigation aid provides distance information without angular bearing information?
• Which statement most accurately describes LORAN-C?
• What is the speed of a radio wave in nautical miles per second?
• What is deviation in navigation terms?
• When a maximum range and altitude is published for a VOR, the reception from this VOR is guaranteed free from harmful interference from other VORs when you are within this airspace.
• A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pps, ignoring pulse width and flyback at the CRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:
• In a 2D RNAV system, which navigation aid can generate a phantom station?
• An aircraft is 15 nm from a phantom station on a 30 nm track between two phantom stations and 25 nm from the DME designating that station. The phantom station is 20 nm from the VOR/DME. The range readout in the aircraft will be:
• What tilt angle on the Antenna Weather Radar causes the active cloud to disappear from the display?
• Which code is used by civilian GNSS receivers?
• A Class A magnetic bearing from a VDF station is a QDR bearing with what accuracy?
• Which factor primarily limits DME range?
• In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error is corrected by using signals from how many satellites?
• The Outer Marker is modulated by Morse at how many dashes per second?
• The IRS position can be updated at which times?
• The promulgated range for an NDB is applicable under which condition?
• DME frequencies around 1000 MHz. What is the approximate carrier frequency?
• In normal Doppler shift applications registered in aircraft equipment, which statement is true?
• When indicating sense indications for a VOR approach, which flag should appear to show the TO sense?
• In GPS navigation data, which element provides orbital details for the satellite?
• Which RNAV metric provides the best information about progress between two en-route waypoints?
• For the ILS Glide Path, the azimuth coverage on each side extends to what distance from the threshold?
• For a 2.7-degree glidepath on a Category 1 ILS, the vertical coverage is which of the following?
• Which color is not part of the conventional AWR color sequence for increasing return intensity?
• Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
• If four glide slope dots correspond to a deviation of 0.15° per dot, what is the angular deviation associated with 4 dots low?
• In a 2D RNAV leg from WP1 to WP2, the range readout will be which value given the following: distance WP1–WP2 is 47 nm and remaining to WP2 is 25 nm?
• The basic principle of operation of the VOR is?
• How long does a GNSS receiver typically take to download the satellite almanac for NAVSTAR/GPS?
• At a distance of 60 NM DME, what is the maximum range error per ICAO specifications?
• In its simplest form, RNAV may consist of which combination?
• In a 2D area navigation system, the waypoint is known as phantom station because the equipment indications are as if there is a VOR/DME at that point.
• An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
• A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pps. The time interval between the leading edges of successive pulses is:
• An RMI shows the bearing to an NDB as 020°, and the aircraft heading is 020°M. To intercept an outbound course of 330° from the NDB at a 40° intercept angle, what heading should the aircraft adopt?
• An AWR with a 5-degree beamwidth requires tilting the scanner to what angle to receive returns from clouds at or above the aircraft's level?
• If an aircraft is hijacked it is recommended that the pilot set transponder code:
• The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative bearing to be maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is
• Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
• The hijack transponder code is most commonly:
• Which navigation aid commonly experiences night effect, station interference, and lacks a failure warning system?
• The total length of a half-wave dipole designed to operate on 100 MHz would be approximately:
• The OFF flag on aircraft DME mileage displays indicate:
• An SRA may be flown to:
• A precision RNAV system is required to be accurate to what value?
• Which of the following lists the information provided by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
• In SSR response, the operation of the transponder IDENT button is to:
• What is drift in navigation terms?
• The result of flying towards a NDB maintaining a 000 relative bearing with a crosswind is:
• Using the 1 in 60 rule, what is the approximate height of the cloud above the aircraft given a cloud range of 40 NM?
• The RMI indicates aircraft magnetic heading.
• On a 3° glidepath, if the groundspeed decreases from 150 to 120 knots, the descent rate will change by approximately how much?
• If on an ILS approach the localiser and glidepath are both showing stronger 90 Hz modulation than 150 Hz, what action should you take to regain centerline and glidepath?
• Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF, which statement is true?
• For a PRF of 1200 pps, what is the maximum unambiguous range in nautical miles?
• In GPS systems, which data helps correct signal speed variation due to ionospheric conditions?
• What causes echoes on airborne weather radar screens?
• Which color is used to indicate the active route on charts per JAR OPS 1?
• In a Cathode Ray Tube, the grid is used to:
• The most accurate position information will be derived from:
• The SHF band is selected for ASMI radars in preference to the EHF band because:
• All in View is a term used in NAVSTAR/GPS when a receiver:
• Which factor most influences the range of secondary radar?
• As a radio signal increases in frequency, ionospheric refraction and atmospheric attenuation:
• What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
• The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress is:
• The minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
• What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
• In an ILS localiser transmitter, the two overlapping lobes are transmitted on the same frequencies and carry modulation frequencies.
• Doppler may unlock over which condition?
• A VOR navigation example: An aircraft is on a VOR radial of 235°, heading 003° (M), with OBS set to 060. What are the correct indications?
• A satellite navigation system requires information from how many satellites to provide a three-dimensional fix without RAIM?
• In the ionosphere, how does the rate of refraction vary with frequency?
• To obtain correct sense indications when approaching a VOR station on the 244° radial, the deviation indicator should be set to which value with the TO flag showing?
• Loran C frequency options:
• For an AWR with a 5-degree beamwidth, the tilt that yields cloud returns at or above the observer's level is:
• On a 2 dot EFIS HSI in the approach mode APR with expanded scale, what does one dot represent?
• In MLS, which equipment provides range information?
• How many frequencies does the glide path transmitter operate on?
• Which navigation method provides the most accurate position information among the following options?
• Which statement best describes the primary function of DME as described in the material?
• Which GPS navigation data component encodes the actual orbit details of the tracked satellite?
• DME operates within which frequency range?
• All in View in GPS terminology refers to a receiver that is which of the following?
• What is the JAR25 colour code for a down path waypoint?
• When using the ILS, a false glidepath is: